- Top Features:
- War Room
- Glenn Greenwald
- Broadsheet
- Joan Walsh
- Camille Paglia
- Since You Asked
- Follow Salon:
Read other letters about this article
I've always found Mr Kamiya's articles on this volatile subject to be well-balanced, and well-informed, giving us information hopefully less skewed that what we'd get from, say, Congress.
But I do have a bit of a puzzle regarding the bit that goes, "Intentionally massacring women and children is not the same as dropping bombs and firing shells into one of the most densely populated areas in the world, even if the resulting civilian death tolls are similar."
I mean, it can only *not* be the same if either the dropping of bombs and firing of shells either does not end in a massacre, or is not intentional.
Since we're told that the death toll is similar, then for it to be different, it must mean the dropping and firing must be unintentional. Only, those bombs and shells probably don't fire off all by themselves, so there must be someone who intentionally does it for them, right?
So, where is that elusive difference?
