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As I recall from my long ago days in law school, doesn't Art. I, ยง 9 of the U.S. Constitution state, in pertinent part:
"No bill of attainder or ex post facto Law shall be passed." U.S. Constitution
According to FindLaw:
"ex post facto law: a civil or criminal law with retroactive effect" FindLaw
Granted, tis folly to expect our currently constituted Supreme Court to render a honest ruling on the matter, however, with the Constitution so unambiguous on this point, why is the question of "retroactive immunity" even being seriously raised?