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Strauss was a bit of a phony, in the way he used pseudo-classicism throughout his career, and not much of a Jew (if I may be permitted to say this).
As to whether or not Strauss was a good enough Jew for your tastes, I have no provenance to speak one way or the other.
But you definitely lost me as to how Strauss was a 'phony' who 'used' 'pseudo-classicism' throughout his career.
1. What was it that made him a 'phony'? What alternate moves or circumstances would have made him a non-phony?
2. What do you mean by 'pseudo-classicism'?
3. How did he 'use' it?
Don't take this the wrong way, because I genuinely want to understand what you're saying, but I ask as someone who's read a good deal of political philosophy, including Strauss, so please don't give me the 'let me explain it to you slowly in small words' version.
