Read other letters about this article
How come the "no difference" argument seems to be embraced mostly by people who otherwise would vote Dem? The argument is neutral from a political point of view, so it should be embraced equally by both Dems and Repubs.
But it's not.
I recall reading Gloria Steinem many years ago suggesting that the "no difference" argument gained traction in the public discourse right about the time that blacks and women, i.e., large, Dem-leaning constituencies, began participating in politics to a greater extent than ever before.
If she's right, what an interesting coincidence.