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Manjoo's example of how a 56 percent average response in a Bush district could still mean Kerry voters were over-represented does not make sense to me. If a district yielded a vote of 80 percent or more for Bush, and 53 percent of Bush voters were willing to respond to the survey, it would take a lot more than 59 percent of Kerry voters to yield an average of 56 percent, since Kerry voters are such a small minority. For example, if the split were 80-20 for Bush, then almost 70 percent of Kerry voters in the district would have to participate to give the 56 percent. What am I missing here?
