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Someone in his administrations had time to write and file a brief supporting DOMA, and this brief contained the most vile type of comparisons that have been used to demean and discredit the Gay community.
And does this send up no red flag to you besides the assumption that Obama has gone over to the dark side? Isn't it possible, and far more likely, that there is some other strategy at work here? Isn't it possible that Obama himself is not claiming these 'vile comparisons' but is forcing the court to dismiss them as invalid, once and for all?
I give that scenario about a zero percent chance of being true. You think Bush Jr. was actually championing Gay rights by using the exact same language in filing briefs that support DOMA?
Aren't court decisions cited as precedent, such that when it is decided that gay marriage has nothing to do with incest or pedophilia, these arguments are no longer valid within the legal debate?
These issues were a minor point in the brief, which you obviously haven't read. There's no difference between the Obama arguments made in the brief, and the arguments made by the most anti-gay people.
The courts didn't suddenly change overnight because Obama was elected.
When you say "States don't have to recognize Italian marriage between an Uncle and Niece, despite being legal in Italy, States don't have to recognize Gay Marriage" (very close paraphrase of the actual language). You aren't engaged in some hidden trick to force the courts into ruling DOMA invalid, and it's bizarre to think otherwise.
